Did Jesus Claim to be the "I Am" in John 8.58?  [36:25]
by Victor Gluckin rated at 1.6 (6 votes so far)

John 8 contains insight into the identity of Jesus. Did he really use the title 'I AM' to refer his hearers back to God's encounter with Moses at the burning bush (Exodus 3.14) or is this an instance where translation bias has twisted the Scripture? Why is it that the same Greek phrase is translated just nine verses later as "I am the one" when it is found on the lips of the blind man?

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